Cloud Practice Exam 1

#1. In application security testing involves the following is true, except.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

Code Review

Static Application Security Testing (SAST)

Backlogging test results

Unit testing, regression testing, and functional tests

#2. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) includes the following except.

Encryption Standards

Breaches of Security

Discrepancies among Member States:

Cross-border Data Transfer Restrictions

Sanctions

Accountability Obligations

Data Subjects’ Rights:

#3. A customer uses Private cloud resources for their legacy production environment, accessed remotely by their users, but also employs PaaS function for software development/testing, away from the production environment.

Private Cloud

Community Cloud

Hybrid Cloud

IaaS

Public Cloud

#4. A community cloud can also be provisioned by a third party on behalf of the various members of the community. (FEDramp cloud) True or False?

True

False

#5. Detects application vulnerabilities by scanning the source code and binaries to detect problems before the code is loaded into memory and run

Encrypting Application security testing (EAST)

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

Static application security testing (SAST)

#6. The amount of data a company would need to maintain and recover in order to function at a level acceptable to management is known as.

data recovery implementation

recovery point level (RPL)

recovery service level (RSL)

recovery point objective (RPO)

#7. What are the six stages of the Data Life Cycle?

Store,Share,Create,Archive,Destroy,Use

Archive,Destroy,Use,Store,Share,Create

Create,Archive,Destroy,Use,Store,Share

Create,Store,Use,Share,Archive,Destroy

#8. A set of resources (racks, blades, software packages) owned by the single customer but located and maintained at the cloud provider’s data center is a part of?

Private Cloud

Public Cloud

IaaS

SaaS

#9. A third-party entity offering independent identity and access management (IAM) services to CSPs and cloud customers, often as an intermediary

Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)

Inter-Cloud Provider

Cloud Service Provider (CSP)

Cloud Broker

#10. Uses templates for implementing cloud security, typically generalized (e.g. an IaaS security reference architecture). They can be very abstract, bordering on conceptual, or quite detailed, down to specific controls and functions.

Conceptual models or frameworks

Controls models or frameworks

Design patterns

Reference architectures

#11. Infrastructure as a Service represents the closest that Cloud comes to a traditional data center True or False.

True

False

#12. Legal Frameworks Governing Data Protection and Privacy are rooted primarily in location of cloud provider,cloud user, data subject and servers, True or False?

True

False

#13. Cloud vendor becomes responsible for administering, patching, and updating this software as well as all the infrastructure, computer and storage needs.

IaaS

PaaS

SaaS

NaaS

#14. Application security encompasses the following except.

DevOps

Encryption protocol

Elasticity

Responsiveness.

Higher baseline security

Isolated environments.

Independent virtual machines.

#15. Multitenant environments; multiple customers will share the underlying resources that are owned and operated by the provider.

PaaS

Private Cloud

IaaS

SaaS

Public Cloud

#16. A content delivery network (CDN) is a form of data caching, usually near geophysical locations of high use/demand, for copies of data commonly requested by user. True or False

False

True

#17. The cloud infrastructure is operated solely for a single organization. It may be managed by the organization or by a third party and may be located on-premises or off premises.

Public Cloud

Hybrid Cloud

Private Cloud

Community Cloud

#18. Cryptographic erasure (cryptoshredding) should be used during this phase of the data life cycle.

Share

Create

Destroy

Use

Store

#19. Protection of consumer media, such as music, publications, video, movies, and so on, is known as what.

Media Rights Management (MDM)

Metadata Rights Management (MRM)

Information Rights Management (IRM)

Data Rights Management (DRM)

#20. Establishes a framework to enable networks and information systems to resist, at a given level of confidence, actions that compromise the availability, authenticity, integrity, or confidentiality of stored data.

The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

Network Information Security Directive (NIS Directive)

Directive 95/46/EC of the European (Data Protection Directive)

Sarbanes–Oxley Act (SOX)

#21. a visual representation that helps to illustrate the expected relationship between cause and effect in a financial context

Reference Model

Conceptual Model

Controls model

Controls Matrix Model

#22. The production percentage service level that needs to be restored to meet BCDR objectives in the case of a failure is known as?

recovery point objective (RPO)

recovery service level (RSL)

recovery time gap (RTG)

recovery acceptance agreement (RAG)

#23. Used for Security Availability, processing integrity, and privacy, the controls of an org are in line with security

Type 1

SOC 1

Type 2

SOC 2

SOC 3

#24. Egress Monitoring (DLP) address which of the following?

Select all that apply:

Policy Enforcement

Regulatory Compliance

Encryption Enforcement

Additional Security

Enhanced Monitoring

#25. DLP implementation in the cloud comes with related difficulties and costs, True or False?

True

False

#26. Rackspace, Microsoft’s Azure, and Amazon Web Services (AWS) are examples of?

PaaS

Public Cloud

Private Cloud

SaaS

#27. Acts as the glue that binds the technologies together and enables management and configuration remotely of a customer’s cloud environment.

Metastructure

Infostructure

Applistructure

Infastructure

#28. ITAR is a Department of State program. EAR is a Commerce Department program, True or False?

False

True

#29. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)

Applies to the processing of personal data in the Canada

Applies to the processing of personal data in the Japan

Applies to the processing of personal data in the Australia

Applies to the processing of personal data in the EU/EEA

#30. Cloud customers should also consider implementing some form of egress monitoring in during this phase.

#31. The vendor will be responsible for patching, administering, and updating the OS.

IaaS

SaaS

Paas

Private Cloud

#32. SaaS solution provides a full multitenant application, with all the architectural complexities of any large software platform. True or False

False

True

#33. Cloud Data Storage Types include all but the following.

Database

File Storage

Application/platform

Volume storage

Object storage

#34. Includes cloud-based database engines and services such as data warehousing and datamining. (Big data)

SaaS

Public Cloud

IaaS

PaaS

#35. Used for an inspection of the operating effectiveness of the controls.

Type 1

SOC 2

SOC 1

Type 2

SOC 3

Refresh The Page to Try Again!!!

#1. In application security testing involves the following is true, except.

#2. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) includes the following except.

#3. A customer uses Private cloud resources for their legacy production environment, accessed remotely by their users, but also employs PaaS function for software development/testing, away from the production environment.

#4. A community cloud can also be provisioned by a third party on behalf of the various members of the community. (FEDramp cloud) True or False?

#5. Detects application vulnerabilities by scanning the source code and binaries to detect problems before the code is loaded into memory and run

#6. The amount of data a company would need to maintain and recover in order to function at a level acceptable to management is known as.

#7. What are the six stages of the Data Life Cycle?

#8. A set of resources (racks, blades, software packages) owned by the single customer but located and maintained at the cloud provider’s data center is a part of?

#9. A third-party entity offering independent identity and access management (IAM) services to CSPs and cloud customers, often as an intermediary

#10. Uses templates for implementing cloud security, typically generalized (e.g. an IaaS security reference architecture). They can be very abstract, bordering on conceptual, or quite detailed, down to specific controls and functions.

#11. Infrastructure as a Service represents the closest that Cloud comes to a traditional data center True or False.

#12. Legal Frameworks Governing Data Protection and Privacy are rooted primarily in location of cloud provider,cloud user, data subject and servers, True or False?

#13. Cloud vendor becomes responsible for administering, patching, and updating this software as well as all the infrastructure, computer and storage needs.

#14. Application security encompasses the following except.

#15. Multitenant environments; multiple customers will share the underlying resources that are owned and operated by the provider.

#16. A content delivery network (CDN) is a form of data caching, usually near geophysical locations of high use/demand, for copies of data commonly requested by user. True or False

#17. The cloud infrastructure is operated solely for a single organization. It may be managed by the organization or by a third party and may be located on-premises or off premises.

#18. Cryptographic erasure (cryptoshredding) should be used during this phase of the data life cycle.

#19. Protection of consumer media, such as music, publications, video, movies, and so on, is known as what.

#20. Establishes a framework to enable networks and information systems to resist, at a given level of confidence, actions that compromise the availability, authenticity, integrity, or confidentiality of stored data.

#21. a visual representation that helps to illustrate the expected relationship between cause and effect in a financial context

#22. The production percentage service level that needs to be restored to meet BCDR objectives in the case of a failure is known as?

#23. Used for Security Availability, processing integrity, and privacy, the controls of an org are in line with security

#24. Egress Monitoring (DLP) address which of the following?

#25. DLP implementation in the cloud comes with related difficulties and costs, True or False?

#26. Rackspace, Microsoft’s Azure, and Amazon Web Services (AWS) are examples of?

#27. Acts as the glue that binds the technologies together and enables management and configuration remotely of a customer’s cloud environment.

#28. ITAR is a Department of State program. EAR is a Commerce Department program, True or False?

#29. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)

#30. Cloud customers should also consider implementing some form of egress monitoring in during this phase.

#31. The vendor will be responsible for patching, administering, and updating the OS.

#32. SaaS solution provides a full multitenant application, with all the architectural complexities of any large software platform. True or False

#33. Cloud Data Storage Types include all but the following.

#34. Includes cloud-based database engines and services such as data warehousing and datamining. (Big data)

#35. Used for an inspection of the operating effectiveness of the controls.

Results

Cloud Practice Exam 1

Refresh The Page to Try Again!!!

#1. In application security testing involves the following is true, except.

#2. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) includes the following except.

#3. A customer uses Private cloud resources for their legacy production environment, accessed remotely by their users, but also employs PaaS function for software development/testing, away from the production environment.

#4. A community cloud can also be provisioned by a third party on behalf of the various members of the community. (FEDramp cloud) True or False?

#5. Detects application vulnerabilities by scanning the source code and binaries to detect problems before the code is loaded into memory and run

#6. The amount of data a company would need to maintain and recover in order to function at a level acceptable to management is known as.

#7. What are the six stages of the Data Life Cycle?

#8. A set of resources (racks, blades, software packages) owned by the single customer but located and maintained at the cloud provider’s data center is a part of?

#9. A third-party entity offering independent identity and access management (IAM) services to CSPs and cloud customers, often as an intermediary

#10. Uses templates for implementing cloud security, typically generalized (e.g. an IaaS security reference architecture). They can be very abstract, bordering on conceptual, or quite detailed, down to specific controls and functions.

#11. Infrastructure as a Service represents the closest that Cloud comes to a traditional data center True or False.

#12. Legal Frameworks Governing Data Protection and Privacy are rooted primarily in location of cloud provider,cloud user, data subject and servers, True or False?

#13. Cloud vendor becomes responsible for administering, patching, and updating this software as well as all the infrastructure, computer and storage needs.

#14. Application security encompasses the following except.

#15. Multitenant environments; multiple customers will share the underlying resources that are owned and operated by the provider.

#16. A content delivery network (CDN) is a form of data caching, usually near geophysical locations of high use/demand, for copies of data commonly requested by user. True or False

#17. The cloud infrastructure is operated solely for a single organization. It may be managed by the organization or by a third party and may be located on-premises or off premises.

#18. Cryptographic erasure (cryptoshredding) should be used during this phase of the data life cycle.

#19. Protection of consumer media, such as music, publications, video, movies, and so on, is known as what.

#20. Establishes a framework to enable networks and information systems to resist, at a given level of confidence, actions that compromise the availability, authenticity, integrity, or confidentiality of stored data.

#21. a visual representation that helps to illustrate the expected relationship between cause and effect in a financial context

#22. The production percentage service level that needs to be restored to meet BCDR objectives in the case of a failure is known as?

#23. Used for Security Availability, processing integrity, and privacy, the controls of an org are in line with security

#24. Egress Monitoring (DLP) address which of the following?

#25. DLP implementation in the cloud comes with related difficulties and costs, True or False?

#26. Rackspace, Microsoft’s Azure, and Amazon Web Services (AWS) are examples of?

#27. Acts as the glue that binds the technologies together and enables management and configuration remotely of a customer’s cloud environment.

#28. ITAR is a Department of State program. EAR is a Commerce Department program, True or False?

#29. General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)

#30. Cloud customers should also consider implementing some form of egress monitoring in during this phase.

#31. The vendor will be responsible for patching, administering, and updating the OS.

#32. SaaS solution provides a full multitenant application, with all the architectural complexities of any large software platform. True or False

#33. Cloud Data Storage Types include all but the following.

#34. Includes cloud-based database engines and services such as data warehousing and datamining. (Big data)

#35. Used for an inspection of the operating effectiveness of the controls.

Results

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