Cloud Practice Exam 1

#1. Establishes a framework to enable networks and information systems to resist, at a given level of confidence, actions that compromise the availability, authenticity, integrity, or confidentiality of stored data.

Network Information Security Directive (NIS Directive)

Sarbanes–Oxley Act (SOX)

Directive 95/46/EC of the European (Data Protection Directive)

The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

#2. Legal Frameworks Governing Data Protection and Privacy are rooted primarily in location of cloud provider,cloud user, data subject and servers, True or False?

True

False

#3. A NIST document that describes the process for accrediting and cryptosystems for use by the US federal government.

FIPS 140-2

The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

The Sarbanes–Oxley Act (SOX)

NIST 800-53

#4. The Act on the Protection of Personal Information (APPI), adopted as early as 2003, was one of the first data protection regulations in Asia.

Japan

Canada

United States

Russia

Europe

#5. Actively scans running applications with penetration tests to detect possible security vulnerabilities.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

Encryption Application security testing (EAST)

Static application security testing (SAST)

#6. Cloud customers should also consider implementing some form of egress monitoring in during this phase.

#7. The cloud infrastructure is made available to the general public or a large industry group and is owned by an organization selling cloud services.

Community Cloud

Public Cloud

Hybrid Cloud

Private Cloud

#8. Cloud Data Storage Types include all but the following.

Object storage

Volume storage

Database

Application/platform

File Storage

#9. Which of the following is not one of the five Cloud Characteristics?

Broad network access

On-demand self-service

Measured or “metered” service

They are all Cloud Characteristics

Rapid elasticity

Resource pooling

#10. The primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in compute virtualization are to enforce isolation and maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure. True or False.

False

True

#11. A community cloud can also be provisioned by a third party on behalf of the various members of the community. (FEDramp cloud) True or False?

True

False

#12. Cloud vendor becomes responsible for administering, patching, and updating this software as well as all the infrastructure, computer and storage needs.

PaaS

IaaS

NaaS

SaaS

#13. Includes the most change, because it becomes the “virtual infrastructure” that the customer is in complete control of (and responsible for) securing.

Infostructure

Infrastructure

Applistructure

Metastructure

#14. Forces executives to oversee all accounting practices, it also holds them accountable for fraudulent/deceptive activity.

Directive 95/46/EC

Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

Payment Card industry (PCI)

NIST 800-53

Sarbanes–Oxley Act (SOX)

#15. The production percentage service level that needs to be restored to meet BCDR objectives in the case of a failure is known as?

recovery time gap (RTG)

recovery acceptance agreement (RAG)

recovery point objective (RPO)

recovery service level (RSL)

#16. The three methods of data discovery are the following.

preservation, dispersion and replication

Dynamic. Transactional and Static

metadata, labels, and content analysis.

Data distribution, labels and e-discovery

#17. Which of the following is not a method of enforcing Lifecycle Management Security?

Ensuring compliance

Dynamic masking

Backups and business continuity

Managing data location/residency

#18. Categorized and detail specific cloud security controls or categories of controls, such as the CSA CCM

Controls models or frameworks

Reference architectures

Design patterns

Conceptual models or frameworks

#19. What is the fourth stage of the data life cycle?

Share

Create

Destroy

Use

Store

#20. Widely considered to be the gold standard when it comes to security of information systems and their data.

NIST 800-53

ISO 27001, (27001:2013)

Directive 95/46/EC of the European (Data Protection Directive)

FIPS 140-2

#21. Transparent Database Encryption (TDE) is used in which of the Cloud Service Models.

Private Cloud

SaaS

PaaS

IaaS

#22. Multitenant environments; multiple customers will share the underlying resources that are owned and operated by the provider.

Public Cloud

PaaS

Private Cloud

IaaS

SaaS

#23. The cloud infrastructure is shared by several organizations and supports a specific community that has shared concerns. It may be managed by the organizations or by a third party and may be located on-premises or off-premises.

Hybrid Cloud

Private Cloud

Public Cloud

Community Cloud

#24. DLP implementation in the cloud comes with related difficulties and costs, True or False?

False

True

#25. Removing the telltale nonspecific identifiers is called? (Data must be marked as sensitive when it is created)

Anonymization

Obfuscation

Randomization

Masking

#26. Provides development or application platforms, such as databases, application platforms (e.g. a place to run Python, PHP, or other code),

Paas

IaaS

SaaS

Community Cloud

Private Cloud

#27. Data retention policies covers all of the following except.

Format of the Stored Data

Duration of Data Storage

Storage Technologies

Cost

Accessibility of Archives

#28. Test data generation and Dynamic masking are techniques to protect data used in development and test environments. True or False?

False

True

#29. The cloud infrastructure is operated solely for a single organization. It may be managed by the organization or by a third party and may be located on-premises or off premises.

Private Cloud

Community Cloud

Hybrid Cloud

Public Cloud

#30. Cryptographic erasure (cryptoshredding) should be used during this phase of the data life cycle.

Share

Destroy

Store

Use

Create

#31. Includes cloud-based database engines and services such as data warehousing and datamining. (Big data)

Public Cloud

PaaS

IaaS

SaaS

#32. Outsourcing Key Management Keys should be stored with the data they’re protecting. True or False

False

True

#33. In Cloud Data Access Controls the management plane consist of the following.

Controls for managing access of users that directly access the cloud platform’s management plane

data is shared externally to the public or partners that don’t have direct access to the cloud platform, t

applications on the cloud platform to design and implement your own controls to manage access

#34. A Cloud Access Security Broker(CASB), can handle IAM and key management services for cloud customers, True or False?

True

False

#35. Used for publicly high-level report by an independent CPA, a SOC engagement was performed.

Type 2

SOC 1

SOC 2

SOC 3

Type 1

Refresh The Page to Try Again!!!

#1. Establishes a framework to enable networks and information systems to resist, at a given level of confidence, actions that compromise the availability, authenticity, integrity, or confidentiality of stored data.

#2. Legal Frameworks Governing Data Protection and Privacy are rooted primarily in location of cloud provider,cloud user, data subject and servers, True or False?

#3. A NIST document that describes the process for accrediting and cryptosystems for use by the US federal government.

#4. The Act on the Protection of Personal Information (APPI), adopted as early as 2003, was one of the first data protection regulations in Asia.

#5. Actively scans running applications with penetration tests to detect possible security vulnerabilities.

#6. Cloud customers should also consider implementing some form of egress monitoring in during this phase.

#7. The cloud infrastructure is made available to the general public or a large industry group and is owned by an organization selling cloud services.

#8. Cloud Data Storage Types include all but the following.

#9. Which of the following is not one of the five Cloud Characteristics?

#10. The primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in compute virtualization are to enforce isolation and maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure. True or False.

#11. A community cloud can also be provisioned by a third party on behalf of the various members of the community. (FEDramp cloud) True or False?

#12. Cloud vendor becomes responsible for administering, patching, and updating this software as well as all the infrastructure, computer and storage needs.

#13. Includes the most change, because it becomes the “virtual infrastructure” that the customer is in complete control of (and responsible for) securing.

#14. Forces executives to oversee all accounting practices, it also holds them accountable for fraudulent/deceptive activity.

#15. The production percentage service level that needs to be restored to meet BCDR objectives in the case of a failure is known as?

#16. The three methods of data discovery are the following.

#17. Which of the following is not a method of enforcing Lifecycle Management Security?

#18. Categorized and detail specific cloud security controls or categories of controls, such as the CSA CCM

#19. What is the fourth stage of the data life cycle?

#20. Widely considered to be the gold standard when it comes to security of information systems and their data.

#21. Transparent Database Encryption (TDE) is used in which of the Cloud Service Models.

#22. Multitenant environments; multiple customers will share the underlying resources that are owned and operated by the provider.

#23. The cloud infrastructure is shared by several organizations and supports a specific community that has shared concerns. It may be managed by the organizations or by a third party and may be located on-premises or off-premises.

#24. DLP implementation in the cloud comes with related difficulties and costs, True or False?

#25. Removing the telltale nonspecific identifiers is called? (Data must be marked as sensitive when it is created)

#26. Provides development or application platforms, such as databases, application platforms (e.g. a place to run Python, PHP, or other code),

#27. Data retention policies covers all of the following except.

#28. Test data generation and Dynamic masking are techniques to protect data used in development and test environments. True or False?

#29. The cloud infrastructure is operated solely for a single organization. It may be managed by the organization or by a third party and may be located on-premises or off premises.

#30. Cryptographic erasure (cryptoshredding) should be used during this phase of the data life cycle.

#31. Includes cloud-based database engines and services such as data warehousing and datamining. (Big data)

#32. Outsourcing Key Management Keys should be stored with the data they’re protecting. True or False

#33. In Cloud Data Access Controls the management plane consist of the following.

#34. A Cloud Access Security Broker(CASB), can handle IAM and key management services for cloud customers, True or False?

#35. Used for publicly high-level report by an independent CPA, a SOC engagement was performed.

Results

Cloud Practice Exam 1

Refresh The Page to Try Again!!!

#1. Establishes a framework to enable networks and information systems to resist, at a given level of confidence, actions that compromise the availability, authenticity, integrity, or confidentiality of stored data.

#2. Legal Frameworks Governing Data Protection and Privacy are rooted primarily in location of cloud provider,cloud user, data subject and servers, True or False?

#3. A NIST document that describes the process for accrediting and cryptosystems for use by the US federal government.

#4. The Act on the Protection of Personal Information (APPI), adopted as early as 2003, was one of the first data protection regulations in Asia.

#5. Actively scans running applications with penetration tests to detect possible security vulnerabilities.

#6. Cloud customers should also consider implementing some form of egress monitoring in during this phase.

#7. The cloud infrastructure is made available to the general public or a large industry group and is owned by an organization selling cloud services.

#8. Cloud Data Storage Types include all but the following.

#9. Which of the following is not one of the five Cloud Characteristics?

#10. The primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in compute virtualization are to enforce isolation and maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure. True or False.

#11. A community cloud can also be provisioned by a third party on behalf of the various members of the community. (FEDramp cloud) True or False?

#12. Cloud vendor becomes responsible for administering, patching, and updating this software as well as all the infrastructure, computer and storage needs.

#13. Includes the most change, because it becomes the “virtual infrastructure” that the customer is in complete control of (and responsible for) securing.

#14. Forces executives to oversee all accounting practices, it also holds them accountable for fraudulent/deceptive activity.

#15. The production percentage service level that needs to be restored to meet BCDR objectives in the case of a failure is known as?

#16. The three methods of data discovery are the following.

#17. Which of the following is not a method of enforcing Lifecycle Management Security?

#18. Categorized and detail specific cloud security controls or categories of controls, such as the CSA CCM

#19. What is the fourth stage of the data life cycle?

#20. Widely considered to be the gold standard when it comes to security of information systems and their data.

#21. Transparent Database Encryption (TDE) is used in which of the Cloud Service Models.

#22. Multitenant environments; multiple customers will share the underlying resources that are owned and operated by the provider.

#23. The cloud infrastructure is shared by several organizations and supports a specific community that has shared concerns. It may be managed by the organizations or by a third party and may be located on-premises or off-premises.

#24. DLP implementation in the cloud comes with related difficulties and costs, True or False?

#25. Removing the telltale nonspecific identifiers is called? (Data must be marked as sensitive when it is created)

#26. Provides development or application platforms, such as databases, application platforms (e.g. a place to run Python, PHP, or other code),

#27. Data retention policies covers all of the following except.

#28. Test data generation and Dynamic masking are techniques to protect data used in development and test environments. True or False?

#29. The cloud infrastructure is operated solely for a single organization. It may be managed by the organization or by a third party and may be located on-premises or off premises.

#30. Cryptographic erasure (cryptoshredding) should be used during this phase of the data life cycle.

#31. Includes cloud-based database engines and services such as data warehousing and datamining. (Big data)

#32. Outsourcing Key Management Keys should be stored with the data they’re protecting. True or False

#33. In Cloud Data Access Controls the management plane consist of the following.

#34. A Cloud Access Security Broker(CASB), can handle IAM and key management services for cloud customers, True or False?

#35. Used for publicly high-level report by an independent CPA, a SOC engagement was performed.

Results

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