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#1. Allows for a logical grouping of ports or nodes that restricts certain hosts to accessing only specified storage devices

#2. Full DRM and Provider-based control are both aspects of.

#3. In order to create a logical drive on 100TB hard-drive and have it be identified as a separate drive what would you use?

#4. IaaS volumes can be encrypted using different methods,except.

#5. Of the cloud service models who is responsible for physical security on premises.

#6. Which of the following is not one of the five Trust Services Criteria that a CSP will attest to.

#7. With immutable servers, you can increase security by patching and testing images and replacing non-patched instances built off the newly patched image. True of False with new

#8. This publicly available high-level SOC report contains a statement from an independent CPA that a SOC engagement was performed.

#9. In which phase of the Data Lifecycle does Classifications and Entitlements occur?

#10. Combines both device and user authentication to provision network access to resources dynamically.

#11. According to the AICPA, a system comprises the following components except?

#12. When it comes to IaaS and SaaS, who is primarily responsible for IAM?

#13. Data owners are expected to select the appropriate classification for a particular data set.

#14. The CCM and EU GDPR are best practices and/or standards that can be leveraged to create a cloud governance framework. True or False?

#15. What does AICPA’s five Trust Services Criteria consist of?

#16. The primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in compute virtualization are to enforce isolation and maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure. True or False.

#17. Which of the following can be used for VA testing in larger environments and allows for replication of the production environment.

#18. In which phase of the Data Lifecycle does encryption at rest occur?

#19. When it comes to Application security how would you prevent information disclosure?

#20. An architectural concept that enables centralized management and emphasizes the role of software in running networks to dynamically control, change, and manage network behavior.

#21. Application Security: CI/CD pipelines can actually enhance security through supporting immutable infrastructures, automating security testing, and providing extensive logging of application. True or False

#22. Performing Vulnerability assessments with agents installed on the server is the best approach in cloud security. True or False

#23. Access controls in the cloud should be implemented in all of the layers except.

#24. In which cloud service models is the customer responsible for the client access endpoints.

#25. Mapping an identity (including roles, personas, and attributes) to an authorization.

#26. Volatile memory contains all kinds of potentially sensitive information, who responsible for ensuring strong isolation of volatile memory in the cloud.

#27. A point-in-time look at the design of the controls is known as?

#28. In order to implement the Immutable Workloads approach you would need the following except.

#29. Includes managing overall risk for the organization, aligned with the organization’s governance and risk tolerance.

#30. In which phase of the Data Lifecycle employs encryption in transit, application security and data loss prevention?

#31. Responsible for overseeing business and billing administration, purchasing cloud services, and requesting audit reports when necessary.as well as processing financial transactions

#32. a service exposed by the provider, where the customer doesn’t manage any of the underlying hardware or virtual machines and simply accesses exposed function is known as a?

#33. Which of the following is not one of the four NIST/ISO/IEC deployment models.

#34. Data passes through an encryption proxy before being sent to the SaaS application is known as?

#35. A bastion network can be defined as a network that data must go through in order to get to a destination, True or False

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